Is it possible for someone to be an antipope even though the majority of cardinals claim he is pope? The case of Antipope Anacletus II proves that it is possible for a majority of cardinals to claim a man is pope while he, in reality, is an antipope. In 1130, a majority of cardinals voted for Cardinal Peter Pierleone to be pope. He called himself Anacletus II. He was proclaimed pope and ruled Rome for eight years by vote and consent of a absolute majority of the cardinals despite the fact he was a antipope. In 1130, just prior to the election of antipope Anacletus, a small minority of cardinals elected the real pope: Pope Innocent II. How is this possible? St. Bernard said "the 'sanior pars' (the wiser portion)... declared in favor of Innocent II. By this he probably meant a majority of the cardinal-bishops." (St. Bernard of Clairvaux by Leon Christiani, Page 72) Again, how is this possible when the absolute majority of cardinals voted for A...
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In this way it is difficult for Bergoglio to be one of the 40 antipopes who have passed through history. Because it was never known that the antipopes changed any comma in Catholic doctrine by usurping the Chair of Peter. And much less is there a logic that he is more of a Pope Honorius I who was convicted of heresy, although the fathers of the First Vatican Council, in the discursion before the dogmatic proclamation of the pope's infallibility, were categorical in stating that he was condemned more for neglect, complicity and non-formal heresy because of Arius' errors in his reign.
They soon came to the conclusion that both the antecedents of Pope Honorius I and after him had the charism of infallibility.
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