Is it possible for someone to be an antipope even though the majority of cardinals claim he is pope? The case of Antipope Anacletus II proves that it is possible for a majority of cardinals to claim a man is pope while he, in reality, is an antipope. In 1130, a majority of cardinals voted for Cardinal Peter Pierleone to be pope. He called himself Anacletus II. He was proclaimed pope and ruled Rome for eight years by vote and consent of a absolute majority of the cardinals despite the fact he was a antipope. In 1130, just prior to the election of antipope Anacletus, a small minority of cardinals elected the real pope: Pope Innocent II. How is this possible? St. Bernard said "the 'sanior pars' (the wiser portion)... declared in favor of Innocent II. By this he probably meant a majority of the cardinal-bishops." (St. Bernard of Clairvaux by Leon Christiani, Page 72) Again, how is this possible when the absolute majority of cardinals voted for A...

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1) That it is possible for men of good will and invincible ignorance to be saved.
2) That no one outside the Church can be saved.
What exactly is he saying and how different is it from the subsist-in “heresy”?
Is he a manifest heretic for knowing the traditional teaching and denying it?
I am talking about the general rule. Yes, those in invincible ignorance can be saved, but they are not saved BY their invincible ignorance. Pius IX is not contradicting Eugene IV. He is not speaking of the general rule (which is one must be Catholic to be saved).
The point of this thread (and the reason why I brought Pope Eugene's teaching into it) is that, according to Francis (and quite frankly MANY Catholics on this board), anyone who is Christian (Catholic or not) are the same: all Christians will be saved even if they are not Catholic...regardless of whether they are invincibly ignorant or not.
To believe that all Christians are saved (barring true invincible ignorance) is not Catholic teaching and never was.